Psychology

Chapter 9 Sexual Variations and Disorders

1.  Predisposing factors to sexual dysfunction include
a) child-rearing factors
b) sexual trauma
c) anticipation of failure
d) All of the above.

2.  What are the three major categories of sexual dysfunctions in DSM-IV-TR
a) desire, arousal, orgasm
b) primary, secondary, tertiary
c) homosexual, heterosexual, bisexual
d) environmental, genetic, interactional

3.  Vaginismus is characterized by
a) chronic vaginal infections.
b) inability to maintain lubrication.
c) lack of interest in or fantasy about sex.
d) involuntary spasms of the outer portion of the vagina.

4.  What is the difference between gender identity and sexual preference
a) Gender identity refers to basically homosexual relationships sexual preference refers to heterosexual relationships.
b) Gender identity involves choice of sexual partners sexual preference involves ones
view as being either male or female.
c) Gender refers to behaviors that are psychological in nature sexual preference refers
to behaviors that are genetically caused.
d) Gender identity involves whether a person views themselves as male or female sexual preference involves attraction to either a male or a female.

Chapter 10 Personality Disorders

5.  What is the major difference between Axis I and Axis II disorders
a) Axis I disorders are symptom disorders, and have some flexibility with regard to prognosis which Axis II disorders are near-permanent.
b) Axis I disorders are almost always organic in nature of onset, while Axis II disorders are triggered by environmental factors.
c) Axis I disorders are genetic, while Axis II disorders are psychological.
d) Axis I disorders involve family dynamics, and Axis II disorders involve family dynamics as a predisposing cause.

6.  Personality disorders are listed on Axis II of DSM-IV-TR, along with what other type of disorder
a) psychosis 
b) mood disorders 
c) medical problems 
d) mental retardation

7.  A patient who cannot stand to be alone exhibits intense, unstable moods and interpersonal relationships and is chronically angry is most likely to receive
the diagnosis of
a) borderline.
b) dependent.
c) schizotypal.
d) narcissistic.

8.  The three types of personality disorders are (1) anxious or fearful behavior (2) dramatic, emotional, or erratic behavior and (3)
a) dissociative behavior.
b) odd or eccentric behavior.
c) neurotic or mood-disordered behavior.
d) psychotic or schizophreniform behavior.

9.  Which personality disorder is characterized by little interest in social relationships, poor social skills, a lack of humor, and seem detached from the environment
a) schizoid
b) histrionic
c) borderline
d) narcissistic

10.  Which personality disorder is characterized by a sense of self-importance accompanied by fragile self-esteem
a) schizoid
b) paranoid
c) narcissistic
d) schizotypal

11.  Which of the following is frequently seen as the core problem of borderline personality disorder
a) intolerance of being alone
b) inability to obtain pleasure from any activity
c) extreme depression bordering on catatonia
d) obsessive attention to details of their lives and the lives of their friends

12.  Inability to function autonomously and a tendency to subordinate ones own needs to others needs are characteristics of
a) avoidant personality disorder.
b) paranoid personality disorder.
c) dependent personality disorder.
d) Obsessive -compulsive personality disorder.

Chapter 11 Mood Disorders and Suicide

13.  During a case conference, a psychologist described several hospitalized patients as exhibiting negative symptoms of depression. What does this description tell us about these patients
a) They had refused all forms of therapy.
b) They were experiencing troubling delusions.
c) They had been difficult to treat during therapy sessions.
d) They were experiencing appetite, weight, and sleep problems.

14.  Loraine describes the following symptoms to her therapist depression, loss of interest, weight gain, sleep problems, feelings of worthlessness and suicidal ideation.  The symptoms have been present for at least 3 weeks.  Loraines diagnosis is
a) dysthymia
b) major depressive episode
c) cyclothymia
d) major depressive disorder

15.  What is the most likely biological basis for depression
a) lesions in the limbic system
b) loss of neurons in the frontal lobes
c) irregular electrical activity in the brain
d) abnormal levels of neurotransmitters in the brain

16.  What is the cognitive triad
a) major depression, dysphoria, and double depression
b) unipolar mood disorder, bipolar I disorder, and bipolar II disorder
c) attention to negative features of the self, the situation, and future
d) behavioral, cognitive, and emotional changes that occur in depression

17.  What is the primary emphasis of cognitive-behavior therapy for depression
a) uncovering repressed anger
b) fostering close relationships
c) changing automatic thoughts
d) mobilizing the client to perform self-help tasks

18.  Elevated mood, psychomotor agitation, and flight of ideas are all characteristic of
a) mania.
b) dysthymia.
c) schizophrenia.
d) unipolar mood disorder.

19.  How do bipolar I disorder and bipolar II disorder differ
a) Bipolar I involves hypomania.
b) Bipolar II involves hypomania.
c) Bipolar I involves no mania or hypomania.
d) Bipolar II involves no mania or hypomania.

Chapter 12  Schizophrenia and Other Psychotic Disorders

20.  All of the following are symptoms for psychotic disorder except
a) disorganized behavior
b) hallucinations
c) disorganized speech
d) depression

21.  Psychomotor disturbance, refusing to speak, and waxy flexibility are symptoms of
a) residual schizophrenia
b) disorganized schizophrenia
c) catatonic schizophrenia
d) paranoid schizophrenia 

22.  Delusions, sustained suspiciousness, and delusional thinking are associated with
a) catatonic schizophrenia
b) disorganized schizophrenia
c) paranoid schizophrenia
d) schizoaffective disorder

23.   Incoherence in expression, flat affect, aimless behavior, and childish disregard for social norms are symptoms of
a) paranoid schizophrenia
b) disorganized schizophrenia
c) catatonic schizophrenia
d) None of the above.

24.  Maria receives a diagnosis of schizophrenic disorder of the residual type.  What does this mean
a) Maria had previously met the criteria for schizophrenia but no longer has prominent positive symptoms.

b) Maria had previously met the criteria for schizophrenia but no longer has prominent negative symptoms.
c) Marias condition has worsened.
d) Maria is in a transitory phase and needs re-evaluated.

25.  What are positive symptoms of schizophrenia
a) socially valued symptoms
b) genetic markers for the disease
c) behaviors experienced as enjoyable
d) distortions or excesses of normal functions

26.  What term is used for faulty interpretations of reality that cannot be shaken despite clear evidence to the contrary
a) delusions
b) fantasies
c) hallucinations
d) defense mechanisms

27.  Ray believes people are spying on him. Whats more, he claims the CIA
has put a microphone in his dogs stomach so they can listen to his private conversations. What type of delusion is Ray exhibiting
a) grandeur
b) reference
c) persecution
d) unjustified guilt

28.  What is the most common type of hallucination that occurs in schizophrenia
a) visual
b) tactile
c) auditory
d) olfactory

29.  A client at the mental hospital believes certain gestures or comments,
song lyrics, and passages in books are specifically intended for him. Based
on this description, which of the following terms is likely to appear in the
written description of the clients symptoms
a) bizarre b) negative
c) referential d) hallucinatory

Chapter 13 Cognitive Impairment Disorders

30.  How do cognitive impairment disorders differ from most other DSM-IV-TR categories
a) They are irreversible conditions.
b) They are generally present from birth.
c) They are usually treated with surgery.
d) They are due to known medical conditions or substances.

31.  Which condition is associated with the cessation of heavy drinking
a) dementia
b) general paresis
c) delirium tremors
d) Parkinsons disease

32.  Dementia is primarily characterized by loss of
a) hearing.
b) peripheral vision.
c) fine motor control.
d) intellectual abilities.

33. When Mr. Bolden is asked about something he cannot remember, he gives
a detailed, but inaccurate, answer. His responses often make it difficult for others to realize he has memory lapses. Mr. Boldens behavior is called
a) delirium.
b) malingering.
c) confabulation.
d) amnestic disorder.

34.  Which of the following is one of the most distinctive characteristics of Alzheimers disease
a) tangled clumps of nerve cells in the brain
b) insufficient levels of dopamine in the brain
c) abnormal electrical activity in the cerebellum
d) abnormal glucose metabolism in the limbic system

35.  Which disorder is an autosomal dominant disorder
a) Picks disease
b) Huntingtons disease
c) Parkinsons disease
d) Alzheimers disease

Chapter 14  Substance-Related Disorders

36.  What is a consequence of heavy use of psychoactive substances
a) reduction in goal-directed behavior
b) cognitive deficits
c) physical symptoms
d) All of the above are consequences.

37.  Tolerance, withdrawal, and compulsive use are associated with ________ while psychological problems and maladaptive behavior are associated with _____.
a) substance abuse substance dependence
b) substance use disorders substance abuse
c) substance dependence substance abuse
d) substance-induced disorders substance abuse

38.  What are the primary risks to the infant if the child develops fetal alcohol syndrome

a) tumors and blood clots
b) heart and kidney failure
c) immunodeficiency and pneumonia
d) mental retardation and physical malformations

Chapter 15  Disorders of Childhood and Adolescence

39.  What is the most frequently diagnosed behavioral disorder in childhood
a) social phobia
b) conduct disorder
c) obsessive-compulsive disorder
d) attention deficithyperactivity disorder

40.  Carl is often disruptive in class. He is frequently negativistic, defiant, disobedient, and hostile toward authority figures. However, he has never violated any major societal norms or the basic rights of others. His behavior is most consistent with a diagnosis of
a) overanxious disorder.
b) oppositional defiant disorder.
c) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
d) attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder.

41.  Sergio has many of the symptoms of conduct disorder, however, he
is 19 years old. What is the most likely disorder that will be considered
a) pica
b) Tourettes disorder
c) antisocial personality disorder
d) obsessive-compulsive disorder

42.  Re-experiencing the event, avoidance of the trauma-related stimuli, and increased arousal are symptoms of
a) separation anxiety disorder
b) post traumatic stress disorder
c) generalized anxiety disorder
d) social phobia

43.  Nine-year-old Judy insists on checking several times to see if the windows are closed and the doors locked before she allows her family to leave home on even brief trips. Her insistence on checking could be a sign of
a) a phobia.
b) separation anxiety.
c) attention-deficit disorder.
d) obsessive-compulsive disorder.

Chapter 16  Pervasive Developmental Disorders and Mental Retardation

44.  Which of the following is true regarding pervasive developmental disorders
a) are apparent early in the childs development
b) affects are social, language, and cognitive systems
c) are a long-lasting impairment
d) All are true.

45.  Unusual patterns of social and cognitive development, difficulties in social interaction and communication, and restricted interests describe
a) Retts disorder
b) Autistic disorder
c) Aspergers disorder
d) Tourettes disorder

46.  What is one of the major differences between autistic disorder and Aspergers disorder
a) There are no significant delays in language in Aspergers disorder.
b) There is a greater degree of memory impairment in autistic disorder.
c) People with autistic disorder generally obtain higher intelligence scores.
d) Aspergers disorder tends to develop much earlier than autistic disorder.

47.  Tim has a flat face, small nose, eyes that appear to slant upward because of small folds of skin at the inside corner, short arms and legs, and small squarish hands. These physical features are typical of a chromosomal disorder called
a) phenylketonuria.
b) Down syndrome.
c) Tay-Sachs disease.
d) Fragile X syndrome.

48.  Which of the following is an explanation for the importance of sameness and routine to children with autism
a) It becomes a cognitive reality.
b) This is an attempt to control exposure to over-stimulation.
c) This limits the number of temper tantrums.
d) This is an attempt to create more stimulation.

49.  Based on an examination of home videos of childrens first birthdays, the frequency of which behavior is most predictive of a later diagnosis of autism
a) pointing to objects
b) failing to look at other people
c) responding to hisher own name
d) showing an object to other people

50.  A child psychologist was asked to provide guidelines for distinguishing  autistic disorder and childhood schizophrenia. Which of the following would be a helpful guideline for mental health professionals faced with making a differential diagnosis
a) Childhood schizophrenia is more likely to run in families.
b) Childhood schizophrenia rarely occurs until age 7 or later.
c) Childhood schizophrenia is more likely to involve disordered speech.
d) Childhood schizophrenia tends to have a major impact on peer relationships.